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If $y=y(x)$ is the solution of the differential equation $\bigg(\large\frac{2+ \sin x}{y+1}\bigg) \frac{dy}{dx} $$+ cos x=0$ with $y(0)=1,$ then $y\bigg(\large\frac{\pi}{2}\bigg)=$

\[\begin {array} {1 1} (a)\;\frac{1}{3} & \quad (b)\;\frac{2}{3} \\ (c)\;1 & \quad (d)\;\frac{4}{3} \end {array}\]
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1 Answer

$(a)\;\frac{1}{3}$
answered Nov 7, 2013 by pady_1
 

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