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If the mean and variance of a binomial variable X are 2 and 1 respectively, the $P(X \geq 1)=$

\[\begin {array} {1 1} (1)\;\frac{2}{3} & \quad (2)\;\frac{15}{16} \\ (3)\;\frac{7}{8} & \quad (4)\;\frac{4}{5} \end {array}\]

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$ (2)\;\frac{15}{16}$
answered Nov 7, 2013 by pady_1
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