Browse Questions

A random variable X follows binomial distribution with mean $\alpha$ and variance $\beta$ Then

$\begin {array} {1 1} (A)\;0< \alpha < \beta & \quad (B)\;0 < \beta < \alpha \\ (C)\;\alpha < 0 < \beta & \quad (D)\;\alpha < 0 < \beta \end {array}$

$0 < Q < 1$
$\Rightarrow 0 < npq < np$
$\therefore 0 < variance < mean$
$\Rightarrow 0 < \beta < \alpha$
Ans : (B)