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What is the contrapositive of the statement: If $f(2)=0$, then $ f(x)$ is divisible by $(x-2)$?

(A) $f(x)$ is divisible by $(x-2)$, implies that $f(2)=0.$ (B) $f(x)$ is divisible by $(x-2)$, implies that $f(2) \neq0$ (C) Either A or B (D) $f(x)$ is not divisible by $(x-2)$, implies that $ f(2) \neq0$
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Ans : (D)
$f(x)$ is not divisible by $(x−2)$, implies that $ f(2) \neq 0$
answered Jan 20, 2014 by thanvigandhi_1
 

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