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The contrapositive of $ (p V q) \Rightarrow r$ is

$\begin {array} {1 1} (A)\;r \Rightarrow (pVq) & \quad (B)\;^{\sim}r \Rightarrow (pVq) \\ (C)\;^{\sim}r \Rightarrow \: ^{\sim}p \wedge \: ^{\sim}q & \quad (D)\;p \Rightarrow (qVr) \end {array}$

 

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Ans : (C)
Contrapositive of $ p \Rightarrow q$ is $ ^{\sim}q \Rightarrow\: ^{\sim}p$
So, contrapositive of $(pVq)\Rightarrow r$ is
$ ^{\sim}r \Rightarrow \: ^{\sim}(pVq)$ i.e, $ ^{\sim}r \Rightarrow\: (^{\sim}p \wedge \: ^{\sim}q)$
answered Jan 23, 2014 by thanvigandhi_1
 

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