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$ ^{\sim}(p V q)$ is equivalent to

$\begin {array} {1 1} (A)\;(^{\sim}p)\wedge (^{\sim}q) & \quad (B)\;(^{\sim}p)V (^{\sim}q) \\ (C)\;(^{\sim}p)\wedge (^{\sim}q) & \quad (D)\;.(p) V (^{\sim}q) \end {array}$

 

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Ans : (A)
So,$ ^{\sim}(p V q)$ is equivalent to $(p) \wedge (^{\sim}q)$
p q $^{\sim}p$ $^{\sim}q$ $p V q$ $ ^{\sim} (p V q)$ $(^{\sim}p) \wedge (^{\sim}q)$
T T F F T F F
T F F T T F F
F T T F T F F
F F T T F T T

 

answered Jan 24, 2014 by thanvigandhi_1
 

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