logo

Ask Questions, Get Answers

X
 
Home  >>  AIMS  >>  Class11  >>  Math  >>  Sets

Let A and B be two sets then (A $ \cup $ B)’ $ \cup $ (A’ $ \cap $ B) is equal to

1 Answer

A'
Hence (A) is the correct answer.
answered Jun 19, 2014 by thanvigandhi_1
 

Related questions

...