A magnetic moment $\mu _s$ and $\mu_i$ associated with the intrinsic spin angular momentum $S$ and orbital momentum l respectively , of an electron are predicted by quantum theory (and verified experimentally to a high accuracy ) to be given by $\mu_s= -\bigg(\large\frac{e}{m} \bigg)$$s; \mu_e =-\bigg(\large\frac{e}{2m}\bigg)$$l$ Which of these relations is in accordance with the result expected classically ? outline the deviation of the classical result ?