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Home  >>  CBSE XII  >>  Math  >>  Relations and Functions
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True or False? Let $f : X \rightarrow Y$ and $g : Y \rightarrow Z$ be two invertible functions. Then $g\;o\; f$ is also invertible with $(g \;o\; f)^{-1} = g^{-1} \; o f^{-1}$.

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Answer: False

Let $f:X→Y$ and $g:Y→Z$ be two invertible functions. Then $g\;o\;f$ is also invertible with $(g\;o\;f)^{−1}=f^{−1}\;o\;g^{−1}$

 

 

answered Mar 12, 2013 by balaji.thirumalai
 
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