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JEEMAIN and NEET
>>
JEEMAIN PAST PAPERS
>>
2010
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Q)
Let
p
(
x
)
be a function defined on
R
such that
p
′
(
x
)
=
p
′
(
1
−
x
)
, for all
x
∈
[
0
,
1
]
,
p
(
0
)
=
1
and
p
(
1
)
=
41
. Then
∫
1
0
p
(
x
)
d
x
equals
( A ) 41
( B ) 21
( C ) 42
( D )
√
41
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