Let $f:\;N\;\to N\;be\;defined\;by\;f(n)= \left\{ \begin{array}{1 1} \frac{n+1}{2}, & if\;n\;is\;odd\\ \frac{n}{2}, & if\;is\;even\end{array} \right. \qquad for\;all\;n \in N$ $$\text{state whether the function f is bijective.Justify your answer.}$$

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