If X is a Poisson variate such that $P(X=1)=P(x=2)$ the $P(x=4)$ is equal to

Question

$\begin {array} {1 1} (A)\;\large\frac{1}{2e^2} & \quad (B)\;\large\frac{1}{3e^2} \\ (C)\;\large\frac{2}{3e^2} & \quad (D)\;\large\frac{1}{e^2} \end {array}$