What is the contrapositive of the statement: If $f(2)=0$, then $ f(x)$ is divisible by $(x-2)$?

Question

(A) $f(x)$ is divisible by $(x-2)$, implies that $f(2)=0.$ (B) $f(x)$ is divisible by $(x-2)$, implies that $f(2) \neq0$ (C) Either A or B (D) $f(x)$ is not divisible by $(x-2)$, implies that $ f(2) \neq0$