If a,b,c are the sides of a triangle, then the statement, “$\large\frac{1}{(b+c)},\: \large\frac{1}{(c+a)},\: \large\frac{1}{(a+b)}$ are also the sides of the triangle”, is

Question

$\begin {array} {1 1} (A)\;tautology & \quad (B)\;fallacy \\ (C)\;cannot \: be\: determined & \quad (D)\;None\: of\: these \end {array}$