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Recent questions tagged math-arihant
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let a,b,c be non-zero real no such that integral (1+(cosx)^8)(ax^2+bx+c)dx when limits applied from 0-1=integral(1+(cosx)^8)(ax^2+bx+c)dx when limits applied from 0-2 . Then the equation ax^2+bx+c=0 has
math-arihant
asked
Apr 13, 2015
by
nimmy1357
0
answers
$\int \limits_0^{\pi} (x.sinx.sinx.cosx)dx$
math-arihant
asked
Apr 9, 2015
by
nimmy1357
1
answer
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